Code360 powered by Coding Ninjas X Naukri.com. Code360 powered by Coding Ninjas X Naukri.com
Table of contents
1.
Introduction
1.1.
Questions 1 to 25
2.
FAQs
2.1.
What is the UGC NET exam?
2.2.
What is the maximum number of attempts for the UGC NET examination?
2.3.
How can solving PYQs help in my exam preparation?
2.4.
How many papers are there in the UGC NET exam?
3.
Conclusion
Last Updated: Mar 27, 2024
Easy

December 2013 Paper-II Part-1

Author Amit Singh
0 upvote
Master Python: Predicting weather forecasts
Speaker
Ashwin Goyal
Product Manager @

Introduction

UGC NET Exam is one of the popular exams in India for people interested in research. Previous Year Questions are an excellent option to learn about the exam pattern. By solving the PYQs, you will get a basic idea about your preparation. You can evaluate your weak areas and work on them to perform better in the examination. In this article, we have given the questions of UGC NET 2013 December Paper-II. We have also explained every problem adequately to help you learn better.

Note: This article contains Q.No. 1 to Q.No. 25 out of the 50 questions asked in NET December 2013 paper II. The solution to Q.No. 26 to Q.No. 50 can be found in the December 2013 Paper-II Part-2 article.

Questions 1 to 25

(1) When data and acknowledgement are sent in the same frame, this is known as 

(A) Piggy packing  

(B) Piggy backing 

(C) Back packing  

(D) Good packing 

Answer: B

Piggybacking is a data transmission technique which is bi-directional in the network layer of the OSI model. It is responsible for making the most of the data frames that are sent from the receiver to the emitter, adding the confirmation that the data frame sent by the sender was received successfully (ACK acknowledge).

(2) Encryption and Decryption is the responsibility of _______ Layer. 

(A) Physical       (B) Network 

(C) Application  (D) Datalink 

Answer: C

Encryption and decryption are the responsibility of the Application Layer( in TCP/IP model AppLayer+PresLayer+Session Layer)

(3) An analog signal carries 4 bits in each signal unit. If 1000 signal units are sent per second, then baud rate and bit rate of the signal are _______ and _______. 

(A) 4000 bauds \ sec & 1000 bps  

(B) 2000 bauds \ sec & 1000 bps 

(C) 1000 bauds \ sec & 500 bps  

(D) 1000 bauds \ sec & 4000 bps 

Answer: D

Baud rate or signal rate=bit rate/number of bits per signal "or" 

bit rate=baud rate x number of bits per signal

so here the given baud rate is 1000 bauds(signals)per second and number of bits per signal =4

so bit rate =4000 bits per second

(4) The VLF and LF bauds use _______ propagation for communication. 

(A) Ground           (B) Sky 

(C) Line of sight  (D) Space 

Answer: A

In general, there are three types of propagations:

1. Sky propagation

2. Ground Propagation

3. Line of sight propagation

In ground propagation, the radio waves travel through the atmosphere's lowest portion. These low-frequency signals then travel in all directions from the transmitting antenna.

(5) Using the RSA public key cryptosystem, if p = 13, q = 31 and d = 7, then the value of e is 

(A) 101  (B) 103 

(C) 105  (D) 107  

Answer: B

7.e mod 360 = 1

=>(7*e)%360=1 (when 7* e will be mode with 360 reminder will be =1)

=>so multiple of 360 == 7*e and reminder 1(i.e)7.e should be 361, 721, 1081, 1441, etc. After dividing each of these in turn by 7 to see which is divisible by 7, we find that 721/7 = 103,

 hence e = 103.

(6) FAN IN of a component A is defined as 

(A) Number of components that can call or pass control to component A. 

(B) Number of components that are called by component A. 

(C) Number of components related to component A. 

(D) Number of components dependent on component A. 

Answer: A

FAN IN = the number of components that can pass or call control to component "A"

FAN OUT=the number of components that are called by component A

(7) The relationship of data elements in a module is called 

(A) Coupling   (B) Modularity 

(C) Cohesion  (D) Granularity 

Answer: C

Cohesion - It is said to be the degree to which the different elements of a module belongs together. Thus, cohesion measures the strength of the relationship between pieces of functionality within a given module.

(8) Software Configuration Management is the discipline for systematically controlling 

(A) the changes due to the evolution of work products as the project proceeds. 

(B) the changes due to defects (bugs) being found and then fixed. 

(C) the changes due to requirement changes 

(D) all of the above 

Answer: D

In software engineering, software configuration management  is the task of controlling and tracking changes in the software program, which is a part of a larger cross-disciplinary field of configuration management. Software Configuration Management practices include revision control and the establishment of baselines.

(9) Which one of the following is not a step of requirement engineering ? 

(A) Requirement elicitation  

(B) Requirement analysis 

(C) Requirement design  

(D) Requirement documentation 

Answer: C

Requirement elicitation, analysis, and documentation are steps of requirement engineering. But not requirement design.

(10) Testing of software with actual data and in actual environment is called 

(A) Alpha testing  

(B) Beta testing 

(C) Regression testing 

(D) None of the above 

Answer: B

Beta testing is performed on the client-side by the client under the actual environment with actual data. It is performed in a Real-Time Environment.

(11) The student marks should not be greater than 100. This is 

(A) Integrity constraint  

(B) Referential constraint 

(C) Over-defined constraint  

(D) Feasible constraint 

Answer: A

Integrity constraint is meant for the "integrity" of data, and mark <= 100 is part of it.

(12) GO BOTTOM and SKIP-3 commands are given one after another in a database file of 30 records. It shifts the control to 

(A) 28th record  (B) 27th record 

(C) 3rd record     (D) 4th record 

Answer: B

Going bottom will take you to the last record (i.e., 30th record); now, skip 1 will take you to the 29th, skip 2 to 28th, and skip 3 to the 27th record.

(13) An ER Model includes: 

I. An ER diagram portraying entity types. 

II. Attributes for each entity type 

III. Relationships among entity types. 

IV. Semantic integrity constraints that reflects the business rules about data not captured in the ER diagram. 

(A) I, II, III & IV  (B) I & IV 

(C) I, II & IV        (D) I & III 

Answer: A

An Entity Relationship model (or ER model) is used to describe interrelated things that are of interest in a specific domain of use and knowledge. A basic ER model is one that comprises entity types which classify the things of interest and specifies relationships between entities (instances of those entity types).

(14) Based on the cardinality ratio and participation ________ associated with a relationship type, choose either the Foreign Key Design, the Cross Referencing Design, or Mutual Referencing Design. 

(A) Entity  (B) Constraints 

(C) Rules  (D) Keys

Answer: B

Based on the participation constraint and cardinality ratio associated with a relationship type, choose either the Cross Referencing Design, the Foreign Key Design, or Mutual referencing Design.

(15) Data Integrity control uses _______ 

(A) Upper and lower limits on numeric data. 

(B) Passwords to prohibit unauthorised access to files. 

(C) Data dictionary to keep the data 

(D) Data dictionary to find last access of data 

Answer: B

a) is defined by integrity constraints

c) and D) are not related to data integrity control

(16) What does the following declaration mean ? int (*ptr) [10]; 

(A) ptr is an array of pointers of 10 integers. 

(B) ptr is a pointer to an array of 10 integers. 

(C) ptr is an array of 10 integers. 

(D) none of the above. 

Answer: B

int (*ptr) [10];

This is a "pointer" to an array which is of 10 integers.

Hence,(B) ptr is a pointer to an array of 10 integers. 

(17) Which of the following has a compilation error in C ? 

(A) int n = 32 ; 

(B) char ch = 65 ; 

(C) float f = (float) 3.2 ; 

(D) none of the above

Ans is D) None of the above  

All are valid declarations

a) is obvious b) is also true as char is short int (can hold up to 255) c) is also true it will work with or without float.

(18) Which of the following operators can not be overloaded in C+ + ? 

(A) ∗                    (B) + = 

(C) = =                 (D) : : 

Answer: D

Scope resolution operators cannot be overloaded because if we overload them it will cause serious programming issues.

(19) _________ allows to create classes which are derived from other classes, so that they automatically include some of its “parent’s” members, plus its own members. 

(A) Overloading      (B) Inheritance 

(C) Polymorphism  (D) Encapsulation 

Answer: B

Inheritance in object oriented programming, allows you to create classes that are derived from other classes in a way that they can automatically include some of their "parent's” members plus its own.

(20) The correct way to round off a floating number x to an integer value is 

(A) y = (int) (x + 0.5)  

(B) y = int (x + 0.5) 

(C) y = (int) x + 0.5 

(D) y = (int) ((int)x + 0.5) 

Answer: A

Option A is the correct answer because in this typecast is used after adding 0.5 to the original Number. Options C and D will return floor value.

(21) What is the value of the postfix expression ? a b c d + – ∗ (where a = 8, b = 4, c = 2 and d = 5) 

(A) – 3/8          (B) – 8/3 

(C) 24               (D) –24 

Answer: D

The following is the algorithm for evaluating postfix expressions.

1) Create a stack to store values or operands.

2) Scan the expression that is given and repeat the following for every element being scanned

            a) If the scanned element is a number,                  then push it into the stack

            b) If the scanned element is an operator, then pop the operands for the     operator from the stack.

After that, evaluate the scanned operator and push the final result back onto the stack 

3) When the given expression is ended,then the number present in the stack is the final answer that we want

Postfix Expression = a b c d + - *

=a b ( c + d ) - *

=a ( b - ( c + d ) ) *

=( a * ( b - ( c + d ) ) )

Now using the values a=8 ,b=4 c=2 and d=5

 ( 8 * ( 4 - ( 2 + 5 ) ) )

= ( 8 * ( 4 - ( 7) ) )

 =( 8 * ( -3 ) )

= -24

Hence,Option(D)-24 is the correct choice.

(22) If the queue is implemented with a linked list, keeping track of a front pointer and a rear pointer, which of these pointers will change during an insertion into a non-empty queue? 

(A) Neither of the pointers change 

(B) Only front pointer changes 

(C) Only rear pointer changes 

(D) Both of the pointers changes 

Answer: C

In the linked list implemented by a queue, the last node that is to be inserted is always pointed by 'rear,' and the first node is always pointed by 'front.'

(23) _______ is often used to prove the correctness of a recursive function. 

(A) Diagonalization  

(B) Communitivity 

(C) Mathematical Induction  

(D) Matrix Multiplication 

Answer: C

The correctness of recursive algorithms is often proven by mathematical induction.

(24) For any B-tree of minimum degree t ≥ 2, every node other than the root must have at least ________ keys, and every node can have at most ________ keys. 

(A) t – 1, 2t + 1  (B) t + 1, 2t + 1 

(C) t – 1, 2t – 1  (D) t + 1, 2t – 1 

Answer: C

In the B tree, every internal node other than the root is at least half-full,

i.e. t-1 ≤ #keys ≤ 2t-1,

t ≤ #children ≤ 2t

(25) Given two sorted list of size ‘m’ and ‘n’ respectively. The Number of comparison needed in the worst case by the merge sort algorithm will be 

(A) m × n          (B) max (m, n) 

(C) min (m, n)  (D) m + n – 1 

Answer: D

The no. of comparisons that are needed in the worst case by the merge sort algorithm will be m+n-1, i.e., only the last element will not be compared only.

FAQs

What is the UGC NET exam?

UGC NET is a national-level exam organized by UGC to determine the eligibility of the candidates for lectureship and JRF.

What is the maximum number of attempts for the UGC NET examination?

There is no bar on the number of attempts of this examination. Candidates can appear for the examination as long as they are eligible.

How can solving PYQs help in my exam preparation?

Solving PYQs will give you a good idea about the exam pattern and help you identify your weak topics to prepare them better for the examination.

How many papers are there in the UGC NET exam?

There are two papers, and the candidates get 3 hours for both papers. There are 150 questions in UGC NET combining both papers.

Get the tech career you deserve, faster!
Connect with our expert counsellors to understand how to hack your way to success
User rating 4.7/5
1:1 doubt support
95% placement record
Akash Pal
Senior Software Engineer
326% Hike After Job Bootcamp
Himanshu Gusain
Programmer Analyst
32 LPA After Job Bootcamp
After Job
Bootcamp

Conclusion

This part only contains 25 questions of the December 2013 paper-II and the rest of the questions are explained in Part-2 of the December 2013 paper-II.

We have extensively discussed the December 2013 paper-II. We hope that this blog has helped you understand the UGC pattern. You can refer to this article for more details on UGC NET 2022. Refer to our carefully curated articles and videos and code studio library if you want to learn more. Refer to our guided paths on Coding Ninjas Studio to learn more about DSA, Competitive Programming, JavaScript, System Design, etc. Enrol in our courses and refer to the mock test and problems available. Take a look at the interview experiences and interview bundle for placement preparations.

Do upvote our blog to help other ninjas grow. 

Happy Learning!!!

Previous article
June 2014 Paper III - Part 3
Next article
December 2013 Paper-II Part-2
Live masterclass