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Table of contents
1.
Introduction
1.1.
Questions 26 to 50 
2.
FAQs
2.1.
What is the purpose of the UGC NET Exam?
2.2.
Can I apply for UGC NET after completing a PG diploma?
2.3.
What is the minimum age for applying to the UGC NET Exam?
2.4.
Will distance learning be accepted for the UGC NET?
2.5.
What is the UGC NET syllabus?
3.
Conclusion
Last Updated: Mar 27, 2024
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Jan 2017  Paper II - Part 2

Author Divyansh Jain
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Introduction

In India, the UGC NET Exam is a very popular exam for people who want to pursue a career in research. Previous Year Questions are a great way to get a feel for the exam format. You will gain a fundamental understanding of your preparedness by completing the PYQs. You can assess your weak areas and practice on them to improve your exam performance. We have included the UGC NET 2017 January Paper-II questions in this blog. We've also thoroughly detailed each problem to aid your learning.

This article covers the next 25 questions from the January Paper-II, you can find the first 25 questions in the previous article Jan 2017  Paper II - Part 1

So, let’s get started:

Questions 26 to 50
 

1. Match the following Layers and Protocols for a user browsing with SSL:

a. Application of layer             i. TCP

b. Transport layer             ii. IP

c. Network layer              iii. PPP

d. Datalink layer             iv. HTTP

Codes:

      a   b   c   d

(1) iv   i    ii   iii

(2) iii   ii   i    iv

(3) ii   iii   iv   i

(4) iii   i    iv  ii

Answer: 1

Explanation:

a. Application of layer  iv. HTTP 

b. Transport layer i. TCP 

c. Network layer  ii. IP  ​​​​​​​

d. Datalink layer  iii. PPP  
 

2. The maximum size of the data that the application layer can pass on to the TCP layer below is .........

(1) 216 bytes

(2) 216 bytes + TCP header length

(3) 216 bytes - TCP header length

(4) 216 bytes

Answer: Any Size and according to UGC answer is 2

Explanation:

Application Layer - Any size

Transport Layer - 65515 byte

Network layer - 65535 byte

Data link layer - 1500 byte

 

3. A packet whose destination is outside the local TCP/IP network segment is sent to ..............

(1) File server

(2) DNS server

(3) DHCP server

(4) Default gateway

Answer: 4

Explanation:

A packet whose destination is outside the local TCP/IP network segment is sent to the default gateway.

 

4. Distance vector routing algorithm is a dynamic routing algorithm. The routing tables in distance vector routing algorithm are updated ...........

(1) automatically

(2) by server

(3) by exchanging information with neighbour nodes.

(4) with back up database

Answer: 3

Explanation:

The routing tables in distance vector routing algorithm are updated by exchanging information with neighbour nodes.

 

5. In link state routing algorithm after construction of link state packets, new routes are computed using:

(1) DES algorithm

(2) Dijkstra's algorithm

(3) RSA algorithm

(4) Packets

Answer: 2

Explanation:

Dijkstra’s algorithm  

Link state protocols, also known as shortest path first or distributed database protocols, are based on E. W. Dijkstra's shortest path algorithm, which is a graph search algorithm that solves the single-source shortest path problem for a graph with non-negative edge path costs and returns a shortest-path tree. This algorithm is frequently used in routing as well as in other graph algorithms as a subroutine.

 

6. Which of the following strings would match the regular expression: p+[3-5]*[xyz]?

I. p443y

Il. p6y

III. 3xyz

IV. p35z

V. p353535x

Vl. ppp5

(1) I, III and Vl only

(2) IV, V and VI only

(3) II, IV and V only

(4) I, IV and V only

Answer: 4

Explanation:

I. p443y  valid    

II. p6y   invalid 

III. 3xyz  invalid  

IV. p35z     valid

V. p353535x  valid

VI. ppp5     invalid

 

7. Consider the following assembly language instructions:

mov al, 15

mov ah, 15

xor al, al

mov cl, 3

shr ax, cl

add al, 90H

adc ah, 0

What is the value in ax register after execution of above instructions?

(1) 0270H

(2) 0170H

(3) 01E0H

(4) 0370H

Answer: 1

Explanation:

AX(16 bit) =AH( 8 bit) +AL (8 bit)

MOV AL  ,15    //  00001111 in AL

mov ah, 15    //  00001111 in AH   and AX =0000 1111 0000 1111

xor al, al    // AL is 0000 0000 now  and so AX  =0000 1111 0000 0000

mov cl, 3 // CL is 0000 0011

shr ax, cl   //AX  = 000 0000 1111 0000 0   or (01E0) h

add al, 90H   // AL= 1001 0000  add this to( AX=AH+AL)  , now AX =0170 h with carry 1

adc ah, 0 // add  0 to ah with carry which is one so final ans 0270 h 

Hence answer is 1

 

8. Consider the following statements related to compiler construction:

I. Lexical Analysis is specified by context-free grammars and implemented by pushdown automata.

II. Syntax Analysis is specified by regular expressions and implemented by finite-state machine.

Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?

(1) Only l

(2) Only ll

(3) Both I and II

(4) Neither I nor Il

Answer: 4

Explanation:

Both statements are wrong for detailed information on lexical analysis and syntax analysis 

 

9. The contents of Register (BL) and Register (AL) of 8085 microprocessor are 49H and 3AH respectively. The contents of AL, the status of carry flag (CF) and sign flag (SF) after executing 'SUB AL, BL' assembly language instruction, are

(1) AL=0FH; CF=1; SF=1

(2) AL=F0H; CF=0; SF=0

(3) AL=F1H; CF=1; SF=1

(4) AL=1FH; CF=1; SF=1

Answer: 3

Explanation:

(A) => 3AH => 00111010

(B) => 49H => 01001001

                         ------------------

                          11110001

(A) => F1H

(CY) => 1

(S) => 1

The carry flag is set since the first operand is less than the second operand.

Since the result produces a negative result sign flag is set
 

10. Which of the following statement(s) regarding a linker software is/are true?

I. A function of a linker is to combine several object modules into a single load module.

II. A function of a linker is to replace absolute references in an object module by symbolic references to locations in other modules.

(1) Only I

(2) Only II

(3) Both I and II

(4) Neither I nor Il

Answer: 1

Explanation:

A linker is computer software that combine two or more file generated by compiler into a single executable file.

Option I is correct but II option doesn’t resemble linker.

 

11. There are three processes P1, P2 and P3 sharing a semaphore for synchronising a variable. Initial value of semaphore is one. Assume that negative value of semaphore tells us how many processes are waiting in queue. Processes access the semaphore in following order:

(a) P2 needs to access

(b) P1 needs to access

(c) P3 needs to access

(d) P2 exits critical section

(e) Pi exits critical section

The final value of semaphore will be:

(1) 0

(2) 1

(3) -1

(4) -2

Answer: 1

Explanation:

 Initial value of semaphores S=1

  • P2 needs to access decreases semaphore by 1, new value will be 0 (no one is waiting)
  • P1 needs to access decreases semaphore by 1, new value will be -1 (one process is waiting)
  • P3 needs to access decreases semaphore by 1, new value will be -2 ( 2 process are waiting)
  • P2 exits critical section increases semaphore by 1, new value will be -1 ( one process is waiting)
  • P1 exits critical section increases semaphore by 1, new value will be 0 ( no process is waiting)


12. In a paging system, it takes 30 ns to search translation Look-aside Buffer (TLB) and 90 ns to access the main memory. If the TLB hit ratio is 70%, the effective memory access time is:

(1) 48 ns

(2) 147 ns

(3) 120 ns

(4) 84 ns

Answer: 2

Explanation:

Effective access time = Hit ratio*Time during hit + Miss Ratio * Time During Miss

=0.7*(30+90) + 0.3*(30+90+90) 

=84 + 63

=147 ns

 

13. Match the following w.r.t. Input/Output management:

List-l                              List-II

a. Device controller     i. Extracts information from the

controller register and store it

in data buffer

b. Device driver            ii. I/O scheduling

c. Interrupt handler      iii. Performs data transfer

d. Kernel I/O subsystem iv. Processing of I/O request

Codes:

     a   b   c   d

(1) iii  iv   i   ii

(2) ii   i    iv  iii

(3) iv  i    ii   iii

(4) i   iii   iv   ii

Answer: 1

Explanation:

  • Device controller performs data transfer.
  • Device driver process I/O request.
  • Inturrupt handler Extracts information from the controller register and store it in data buffer
  • Kernel I/O subsystem performs I/O scheduling./li>

 

14. Which of the following scheduling algorithms may cause starvation?

a. First-come-first-served

b. Round Robin

c. Priority

d. Shortest process next

e. Shortest remaining time first

(1) a, c and e

(2) c, d and e

(3) b, d and e

(4) b, c and d

Answer: 2

Explanation:

  • In First Come First Serve(FCFS) if a process with a very large Burst Time comes before other processes, the other process will have to wait for a long time but it is clear that other process will definitely get their chance to execute, so it will not suffer from starvation.
  • In Round Robin there is a fixed time quant and every process will get their chance to be executed, so no starvation is here.
  • In Priority based scheduling if higher priority process keep on coming then low priority process will suffer from starvation.
  • In Shortest Job First(SJF) if process with short process time keep on coming continuously then process with higher burst time will do wait and suffer from starvation.
  • In Shortest remaining time first(SRTF) process with shortest burst time will execute first because of this process with high burst time may suffer from starvation.
     

15. Distributed operating systems consist of:

(1) Loosely coupled O.S. software on a loosely coupled hardware

(2) Loosely coupled O.S. software on a tightly coupled hardware

(3) Tightly coupled O.S. software on a loosely coupled hardware

(4) Tightly coupled O.S. software on a tightly coupled hardware

Answer: 3

Explanation:

 Distributed operating systems consist of tightly coupled O.S. software on a loosely coupled hardware.

 

16. Software Engineering is an engineering discipline that is concerned with:

(1) how computer systems work.

(2) theories and methods that underlie computers and software systems.

(3) all aspects of software production.

(4) all aspects of computer-based systems development, including hardware, software and process engineering.

Answer: 3

Explanation:

Software Engineering is an engineering discipline that is concerned with all aspects of software production.

 

17. Which of the following is not one of three software product aspects addressed by McCall's software quality factors?

(1) Ability to undergo change.

(2) Adaptability to new environments.

(3) Operational characteristics

(4) Production costs and scheduling

Answer: 4

Explanation:

McCall’s 3 software quality factors:

  • Ability to undergo change
  • Adaptiability to new environments
  • Operational characteristics

but Production costs and scheduling is not the aspect of quality factor.

 

18. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true with respect to software architecture?

S1: Coupling is a measure of how well the things grouped together in a module belong together logically.

S2: Cohesion is a measure of the degree of interaction between software modules.

S3: If coupling is low and cohesion is high then it is easier to change one module without affecting others.

(1) Only S1 and S2

(2) Only S3

(3) All of S1, S2 and S3

(4) Only S1

Answer: 2

Explanation:

  • Coupling is the degree of interdependence between software modules.
  • Cohesion means organisation of different module and consistency.
  • Then if coupling is low and cohesion is high, it is easier to change one module without affecting others.

 

19. The Prototyping model of software development is:

(1) a reasonable approach when requirements are well-defined.

(2) a useful approach when a customer cannot define requirements clearly.

(3) the best approach to use for projects with large development teams.

(4) a risky model that rarely produces a meaningful product.

Answer: 2

Explanation:

The prototyping model of software development is a useful approach when a customer cannot define requirements clearly.

 

20. A software design pattern used to enhance the functionality of an object at run-time is:

(1) Adapter

(2) Decorator

(3) Delegation

(4) Proxy

Answer: 2

Explanation:

Decorator is used to enhance the functionality of an object at run-time, i.e. it allows you to add new behaviour to other objects at run-time.

 

21. Match the following:

List-l                              List-II

a. Affiliate marketing   i. Vendors ask partners to place

logos on partner's site. If customers

click, come to vendors and buy.

b. Viral Marketing        ii. Spread your brand on the net by

word-of-mouth. Receivers will send

your information to their friends.

c. Group Purchasing iii. Aggregating the demands of small

buyers to get a large volume. Then

negotiate a price.

d. Bartering Online      iv. Exchanging surplus Products and

services with the process administered

completely online by an intermediary.

Company receives “points” for its contribution.

Codes:

     a  b    c   d

(1) i   ii    iii   iv

(2) i   iii   ii    iv

(3) iii  ii   iv   i

(4) ii  iii   i    iv

Answer: 1

Explanation:

  • In Affiliate Marketing vendors ask partners to place logos on partner’s site. If customers click, come to vendors and buy.
  • In Viral Marketing spread your brand on the net by word-of-mouth. Receivers will send yourinformation to their friends.
  • In Group Purchasing aggregating the demands of small buyers to get a large volume. Then negotiate a price.
  • In Bartering Online exchanging surplus products and services with the process administered completely online by an intermediary. Company receives “points” for its contribution.

 

22. ............ refers loosely to the process of semi-automatically analysing large databases to find useful patterns.

(1) Datamining

(2) Data Warehousing

(3) DBMS

(4) Data mirroring

Answer: 

Explanation:

Data-mining refers loosely to the process of semi-automatically analyzing large databases to find useful patterns.

 

23. Which of the following is/are true w.r.t. applications of mobile computing?

(A) Travelling of salesman

(B) Location awareness services

(1) (A) true; (B) false

(2) Both (A) and (B) are true.

(3) Both (A) and (B) are false.

(4) (A) false; (B) true.

Answer: 2

Explanation:

Basic applications of mobile computing :

  • Traveling of salesman
  • Location awareness services

Derived application from the basic application:

  • Airline and Railway Industries
  • Transporting Industry
  • Manufacturing and Mining Industries
  • Banking and Financial Institutions

 

24. In 3G network, W-CDMA is also known as UMTS. The minimum spectrum allocation required for W-CDMA is ..........

(1) 2 MHz

(2) 20 KHz

(3) 5 KHz

(4) 5 MHz

Answer: 4

Explanation:

In a 3G network, W-CDMA is also known as UMTS. The minimum spectrum allocation required for W-CDMA is 5 MHz.

 

25. Which of the following statements is/are true w.r.t. Enterprise Resource Planning (ERP)?

(A) ERP automates and integrates the majority of business processes.

(B) ERP provides access to information in a Real-Time Environment.

(C) ERP is inexpensive to implement.

(1) (A), (B) and (C) are false.

(2) (A) and (B) false; (C) true.

(3) (A) and (B) true; (C) false

(4) (A) true; (B) and (C) are false

Answer: 3

Explanation:

  • ERP automates and integrates majority of business processes.
  • ERP provides access to information in a Real Time Environment.
  • ERP is expensive to implement.

FAQs

What is the purpose of the UGC NET Exam?

UGC NET is an abbreviation for University Grants Commission National Eligibility Test. It is a national-level test used to evaluate eligibility for lectureships and Junior Research Fellowships (JRF) in Indian institutions and colleges.

Can I apply for UGC NET after completing a PG diploma?

A PGDM is equivalent to a master's degree. So, if you hold a PG Diploma from a recognized university, you are eligible to apply for the exam.

What is the minimum age for applying to the UGC NET Exam?

According to the UGC NET Eligibility, there is no age limit for assistant professors, but candidates for JRF must be at least 31 years old.

Will distance learning be accepted for the UGC NET?

Yes, distance education is acceptable for the UGC NET Exam, provided you are enrolled in a UGC accredited university/institute.

What is the UGC NET syllabus?

The NTA administers the UGC NET Exam in two parts: General Paper-1 (common to all topics) and Paper-2 (subject-specific). The syllabus for each Paper 2 subject varies. You can view the entire UGC NET Syllabus.

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Conclusion

We have extensively discussed the January 2017 paper-II. We hope that this blog has helped you understand the UGC pattern. Hope you learned something. But the knowledge never stops, Also you can get the first 25 questions with the answer and solutions in the first part. You can visit it here  Jan 2017  Paper II - Part 1.

 Hope you learned something. But the knowledge never stops, So to learn more you can visit our website for more articles. Check out our articles on June 2013 Paper II - Part 1Dec 2013  Paper III - Part 1, and Dec 2013  Paper III - Part 2.

Refer to our guided paths on Coding Ninjas Studio to learn more about DSA, Competitive Programming, JavaScript, System Design, etc. Enroll in our courses and refer to the mock test and problems available, Take a look at the interview experiences and interview bundle for placement preparations.

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