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UGC NET Computer Science Paper III June 2015 Part 2

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UGC NET or NTA-UGC-NET is the examination for determining the eligibility for the assistant professor and/or Junior Research Fellowship award in Indian universities and colleges. National Testing Agency examines on behalf of the University Grants Commission. In this article, we will cover questions 26 to 50. We have covered questions 1 to 25 in the first part of UGC NET Nov 2015 PAPER-III Part-1, and 51 to 75 in the third part of UGC NET Nov 2015 PAPER-III Part-3.


26. Which of the following control fields in the TCP header is used to specify the sender has no more data to transmit?

(A) FIN            (B) RST

(C) SYN          (D) PSH

Answer: A

Explanation: The control flag FIN in the TCP header denotes the end of data transmission to complete a TCP connection. To start a TCP connection, the SYN flag synchronizes sequence numbers. RST terminates the TCP connection immediately. The PSH flag instructs the host to upload the data to the receiving application right away.


27. Which are the two modes of IP security?

(A) Transport and Certificate (B) Transport and Tunnel

(C) Certificate and Tunnel  (D) Preshared and Transport

Answer: B

Explanation: Only the IP packet's payload is typically encrypted and/or authenticated in transport mode. Because the IP header is not changed or encrypted, the routing is preserved.

Tunnel mode encrypts and/or authenticates the entire IP transmission. The information is subsequently enclosed in a new IP packet with a new IP header. Network-to-network, host-to-network, and host-to-host communications are all possible with tunnel mode.


28. A message “COMPUTER NETWORK” encrypted(ignore quotes)using columnar transposition cipher with a key “LAYER”. The encrypted message is:



Answer: C




29. Suppose a digitized voice channel is made by digitizing an 8 kHz bandwidth analog voice signal. It is required to sample the signal at twice the highest frequency (two samples per hertz). What is the bit rate required, if it is assumed that each sample requires 8 bits?

(A) 32 kbps    (B) 64 kbps

(C) 128 kbps  (D) 256 kbps

Answer: C

Explanation: The analog channel has an 8K/sec bandwidth.

2samples/Hz =2s required sample

Each sample is 8 bits long.

As a result, bit rate = (8k)*2*(8 bit)=128 kbps.

30. The maximum payload of a TCP segment is

(A) 65,535      (B) 65,515

(C) 65,495      (D) 65,475

Answer: C

Explanation: The maximum size of the TCP window in the TCP segment is 65,535 bytes; the minimum TCP header size is 20 bytes and the maximum TCP header size is 60 bytes; the minimum IP header size is 20 bytes and the maximum TCP header size is 60 bytes; and the rest is the payload value.

Window size - Min Header size (TCP + IP) = maximum payload value

65535 – (20 + 20) is the maximum payload value.

65535 – 40 is the maximum payload value.

The maximum payload is 65495.

31. An all-pairs shortest-paths problem is efficiently solved using:

(A) Dijkstra's algorithm           (B) Bellman-Ford algorithm

(C) Kruskal Algorithm          (D) Floyd-Warshall algorithm

Answer: D

Explanation: The Floyd-Warshall approach with time complexity O(n3) is used to solve an all-pairs shortest-paths issue effectively using dynamic programming.

32. The traveling salesman problem can be solved in:

(A) Polynomial-time using a dynamic programming algorithm

(B) Polynomial-time using a branch-and-bound algorithm

(C) Exponential time using a dynamic programming algorithm or branch-and-bound algorithm.

(D) Polynomial-time using a backtracking algorithm.

Answer: C

Explanation: A dynamic programming algorithm or a branch-and-bound technique can solve the traveling salesman problem in exponential time.


33.  Which of the following is asymptotically smaller?

(A) lg(lg*n)     (B) lg*(lg n)

(C) lg(n!)         (D) lg*(n!)

Answer: A

Explanation: lg *n, (Inverse Ackermann function) is the maximum number of times we can take log until we receive one. For all practical reasons, this function can be considered constant.


34. Consider a hash table of size m=100 and the hash function h(k) = floor(m(kA mod 1)) for A = (√5 − 1)/2 = 0.618033. Compute the location to which the key k = 123456 is placed in the hash table.

(A) 77  (B) 82

(C) 88  (D) 89

Answer: C


h(123456)= floor (100 * (123456* 0.618033) % 1)

= floor (100 * (76299.88205 % 1)

= floor (100 * (.88205))

= floor (88.205)

= 88

35. Let f(n) and g(n) be asymptotically non-negative functions. Which of the following is correct?

(A) θ(f(n) * g(n)) = min(f(n), g(n))

(B) θ(f(n) * g(n)) = max(f(n), g(n))

(C) θ(f(n) + g(n)) = min(f(n), g(n))

(D) θ(f(n) + g(n)) = max(f(n), g(n))

Answer: D


Case-1: When neither f(n) nor g(n) are constant functions – Since max(f(n), g(n)) = f(n) * g(n), max(f(n), g(n)) cannot offer an upper bound for f(n) * g(n) (n).

Case-2: When both f(n) and g(n) are constant functions, or when either f(n) or g(n) is a non zero constant function, f(n) * g(n) = theta(max(f(n), g(n)).

Case #3: When at least one of f(n) and g(n) is zero. f(n) * g(n)!= theta(max(f(n), g(n)). Because max(f(n), g(n)) MAY NOT be able to provide a lower bound.

36. The number of nodes of height h in any n - element heap is ..............

(A) h                (B) zh

(C) ceil(n/zh)  (D) ceil(n/zh+1)

Answer: D

Explanation: We can demonstrate this using a random case.

If we take n=9 and the required h=3 (for example), option d will return an answer of (9/16=1(ceil)), which is incorrect.

Option C gives us (9/8=2), which is right.


37. In Java, when we implement an interface method, it must be declared as

(A) Private      (B) Protected

(C) Public       (D) Friend

Answer: C

Explanation: When we implement an interface method in Java, we must declare it as Public.

38. The Servlet Response interface enables a servlet to formulate a response for a client using the method ...............

(A) void log(Exception e, String s)

(B) void destroy()

(C) int getServerPort()

(D) void setContextType(String Type)

Answer: D

Explanation: If the response has not yet been given to the client, it is used to send the content type of the response. Character encoding parameters may be included in the content type.

39. Which one of the following is correct?

(A) Java applets cannot be written in any programming language

(B) An applet is not a small program.

(C) An applet can be run on its own.

(D) Applets are embedded in another application.

Answer: D

Explanation: Any programming language cannot be used to create Java applets. Another programming language can be used to write wrong.

Applets are not little programs. Incorrect It's a modest program.

An applet can be run independently. Incorrect No applet can operate alone.

Applets are applications that are embedded in another application. Correct. Yes, applets are included in other programs.


40. In XML we can specify the frequency of an element by using the symbols:

(A) + * !            (B) # * !

(C) + * ?          (D) - * ?

Answer: C

Explanation: * for 0 or more times. 

+ for one or more times.
? for zero or more times


41. In XML, DOCTYPE declaration specifies to include a reference to ............ file.

(A) Document Type Definition       (B) Document Type Declaration

(C) Document Transfer Definition (D) Document Type language

Answer: A

Explanation: The DOCTYPE declaration in XML requires that a reference to the document type specification file be included.


42. The module design is used to maximize cohesion and minimize coupling. Which of the following is the key to implementing this rule?

(A) Inheritance          (B) Polymorphism

(C) Encapsulation    (D) Abstraction

Answer: C

Explanation: If cohesiveness (how the elements inside the module are coupled functionally together) is functional and coupling (degree of independence between modules) is a data type, software architecture is highly modular. To maximize cohesion and minimize coupling, encapsulation is used.


43. Verification:

(A) refers to the set of activities that ensure that software correctly implements a specific function.

(B) gives an answer to the question - Are we building the product right?

(C) requires the execution of software

(D) both (A) and (B)

Answer: D

Explanation: Verification is a set of operations that ensures software correctly implements a certain function and answers the question, "Are we developing the right product?" However, it does not necessitate the use of the software.


44. Which design metric is used to measure the compactness of the program in terms of lines of code?

(A) Consistency        (B) Conciseness

(C) Efficiency            (D) Accuracy

Answer: B

Explanation: The compactness of the program in terms of lines of code is referred to as conciseness.


45. Requirements prioritization and negotiation belong to

(A) Requirements validation (B) Requirements elicitation

(C) Feasibility Study            (D) Requirement reviews

Answer: B

Explanation: The activity of studying and discovering a system's requirements from users, consumers, and other stakeholders is known as requirements elicitation.


46. Adaptive maintenance is a maintenance which .............

(A) Correct errors that were not discovered till the testing phase.

(B) is carried out to port the existing software to a new environment.

(C) improves the system performance.

(D) both (B) and (C)

Answer: B

Explanation: Adaptive maintenance is the process of transferring old software to a new environment.


47. A Design concept Refinement is a:

(A) Top-down Approach      (B) Complementary of Abstraction concept

(C) Process of elaboration  (D) All of the above

Answer: D

Explanation: As we are extracting a specific type from a Person object to an S/w engineer Refining Process of elaboration, refinement is undoubtedly a Top-Down strategy. Start with an abstract function statement and decompose it step by step until you reach programming language statements.


48. A software design is highly modular if :

(A) cohesion is functional and coupling is a data type.

(B) cohesion is coincidental and coupling is a data type.

(C) cohesion is sequential and coupling is the content type.

(D) cohesion is functional and coupling is stamp type.

Answer: A

Explanation: If cohesion (how the elements inside the module are coupled functionally together) is functional and coupling (degree of independence between modules) is a data type, software design is highly modular.

49. Match the following for operating system techniques with the most appropriate advantage:

List-I                                    List-II

(a) Spooling                     (i) Allows several jobs in memory to

improve CPU utilization

(b) Multiprogramming             (ii) Access to shared resources among                                                                                           geographically-dispersed computers in a transparent way

(c) Time sharing                 (iii) overlapping I/O and computations

(d) Distributed computing   (iv) Allows many users to share a computer

simultaneously by switching processors frequently


      (a)  (b)  (c)  (d)

(A) (iii)  (i)   (ii)  (iv)

(B) (iii)  (i)   (iv) (ii)

(C) (iv)  (iii) (ii)  (i)

(D) (ii)  (iii)  (iv) (i)

Answer: B

Explanation: Overlapping I/O and computations are provided by spooling.

Multiprogramming allows multiple jobs to run simultaneously in memory, increasing CPU utilization.

By periodically swapping CPUs, time-sharing allows multiple people to share a computer at the same time.

Distributed computing allows transparent access to shared resources among geographically distributed machines.


50. Which of the following statements is not true for the Multi-Level Feedback Queue processor scheduling algorithm?

(A) Queues have different priorities.

(B) Each queue may have a different scheduling algorithm

(C) Processes are permanently assigned to a queue

(D) This algorithm can be configured to match a specific system under design

Answer: C

Explanation: Feedback on Multiple Levels Algorithm for scheduling queue processors:

Queues are prioritized differently.

The scheduling algorithm for each queue may differ.

Processes are not assigned to a queue indefinitely.

This algorithm can be customized to fit a particular system under development.


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What is the purpose of the UGC NET Exam?

UGC NET is an abbreviation for University Grants Commission National Eligibility Test. It is a national-level test used to evaluate eligibility for lectureships and Junior Research Fellowships (JRF) in Indian institutions and colleges.

Can I apply for UGC NET after completing a PG diploma?

A PGDM is equivalent to a master's degree. So, if you hold a PG Diploma from a recognized university, you are eligible to apply for the exam.

What is the minimum age for applying to the UGC NET Exam?

According to the UGC NET Eligibility, there is no age limit for assistant professors, but candidates for JRF must be at least 31 years old.

Will distance learning be accepted for the UGC NET?

Yes, distance education is acceptable for the UGC NET Exam, provided you are enrolled in a UGC accredited university/institute.

What is the UGC NET syllabus?

The NTA administers the UGC NET Exam in two parts: General Paper-1 (common to all topics) and Paper-2 (subject-specific). The syllabus for each Paper 2 subject varies. You can view the entire UGC NET Syllabus.


In this article, we have extensively discussed some of the previous year's UGC NET questions. We have covered questions 26 to 50 of UGC NET June 2015 PAPER-III Part-2.

We hope that this blog has helped you enhance your knowledge regarding the UGC NET questions and if you would like to learn more, check out our articles on UGC NET Nov 2015 PAPER-III Part-1UGC NET Nov 2015 PAPER-III Part-3NET Application formPSU Recruitment through GATE, and GATE Books For CSE.

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Enroll in our courses and refer to the mock test and problems available.

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Topics covered
What is the purpose of the UGC NET Exam?
Can I apply for UGC NET after completing a PG diploma?
What is the minimum age for applying to the UGC NET Exam?
Will distance learning be accepted for the UGC NET?
What is the UGC NET syllabus?