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Last Updated: Mar 27, 2024
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UGC NET Dec 2013 PAPER-III Part-1 (Computer Science & Applications)

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Introduction

UGC NET or NTA-UGC-NET is the examination for determining the eligibility for the assistant professor and/or Junior Research Fellowship award in Indian universities and colleges. National Testing Agency examines on behalf of the University Grants Commission.

In this article, we will cover the first 25 questions, 26 to 50, in  UGC NET DEC 2013 PAPER-III PART-2, and 51-75 in UGC NET DEC 2013 PAPER-III PART-3.

Questions

1. If the primal Linear Programming problem has an unbounded solution, then it's a dual problem that will have

(A) a feasible solution

(B) an alternative solution

(C) no feasible solution at all

(D) no bounded solution at all 

Answer: C

Explanation:  If the primal problem is feasible but unbounded in the direction of optimization, then the dual has no feasible solution otherwise, if the primal problem has an optimal solution, then the dual will also have an optimal solution.

 

2. Given the problem to maximize f(x), X = (x1, x2,......xn) subject to m number of inequality constraints. 
gi(x) ≤ bi , i = 1, 2......m including the non-negativity constraints x ≥ 0.

Which of the following conditions is a Kuhn-Tucker necessary condition for a local maxima at x?

(A) L(x, , S )xj=0,  j = 1, 2….m

(B)  [gi(X) - bi] = 0, i=1,2...m

(C) gi(X)  bi], i=1,2...m

(D) All of these

Answer:D

Explanation: Kuhn-tucker necessary conditions: 
The necessary conditions for local maxima or stationary points at x are all options above.

 

3. The following Linear Programming problem has

Max Z = x1 + x2, Subject to

x1 – x2 ≥ 0

3x1 – x2 ≤ –3

and x1, x2 ≥ 0

(A) Feasible solution

(B) No feasible solution

(C) Unbounded solution

(D) Single point as a solution 

Answer: B

Explanation: Draw lines for the two inequalities. Nothing is common in shaded areas so infeasible solution.
 

4. Given a flow graph with 10 nodes, 13 edges, and one connected component, the number of regions and the number of predicate (decision) nodes in the flow graph will be

(A) 4, 5 

(B) 5, 4

(C) 3, 1 

(D) 13, 8 

Answer: B

Explanation: 

Predicate (decision) nodes are those nodes which has out-degree at least 2. 
Region =13-10+2 = 5  [i.e. edges - vertex  + (p+1)] since p= 1] 
predicate nodes(P)= = region = P+1 = 5 P = 4
 

5. Function points can be calculated by

(A) UFP ∗ CAF

(B) UFP ∗ FAC

(C) UFP ∗ Cost

(D) UFP ∗ Productivity 

Answer: A

Explanation: Function points = UFP*CAF

UFP: unadjusted function point

CAF: complexity adjustment factor

 

6. Match the following:

List 1 List 2
a. Data coupling  i. Module A and Module B have shared data
b. Stamp coupling  ii. Dependency between modules is based on the fact they communicate by only passing of data
c. Common coupling  iii when the complete data structure is passed from one module to another,
d. Content coupling  iv. When the control is passed from one module to the middle of another,

Codes:

     a b c d

(A) iii ii i iv

(B) ii iii i iv

(C) ii iii iv i

(D) iii ii iv i 

Answer: B

Explanation: Refer to coupling, and it’s types.

Coupling: A measure of how closely connected two routines or modules are; the strength of the relationships between modules. Low coupling is often a sign of a well-structured computer system and a good design.

Types of coupling

Content coupling (high) (Pathological coupling) occurs when one module modifies the internal workings of another module (e.g., accessing local data of another module).

Common coupling (Global coupling) occurs when two modules share the same global data (e.g., a global variable).

External coupling occurs when two modules share an externally imposed data format, communication protocol, or device interface.

Control coupling is one module controlling the flow of another, bypassing its

information on what to do (e.g., passing a what-to-do flag).

Stamp coupling (Data-structured coupling) occurs when modules share a composite Data Structure and use only a part of it. (e.g., passing a whole record to a function that only needs one field).

Data coupling occurs when modules share data through, for example, parameters. (e.g., passing an integer to a function that computes a square root).

Message coupling (low): This is the loosest type of coupling. It can be achieved by state decentralization (as in objects), and component communication is done via parameters or message passing.
 

7. A process that defines a series of tasks that have the following four primary objectives is known as

1. to identify all items that collectively define the software configuration.

2. to manage changes to one or more of these items.

3. to facilitate the construction of different versions of an application.

4. to ensure that software quality is maintained as the configuration evolves over time.

(A) Software Quality Management Process

(B) Software Configuration Management Process

(C) Software Version Management Process

(D) Software Change Management Process 

Answer: B

Explanation: 

The software configuration management process has the following primary objectives - 

1. to identify all items that collectively define the software configuration

2. to manage changes to one or more of those itemsbehaviormodeling 

3. to facilitate the construction of different versions of an application

4. to ensure that software quality is maintained as the configuration evolves over time.
 

8. One weakness of boundary value analysis and equivalence partitioning is:
(A) they are not effective.

(B) they do not explore combinations of input circumstances.

(C) they explore combinations of input circumstances.

(D) none of the above. 

Answer: B

Explanation: 

Both are black-box testing techniques as we only test at boundaries and at certain points.

Dividing the test input data into a range of values and selecting one input from each range is called the Equivalence partition. It does not explore the combination of input circumstances.
 

9. Which one of the following is not a software myth? 
(A) Once we write the program and get it to work, our job is done. 
(B) Project requirements continually change, but change can be easily accommodated because software is flexible. 
(C) If we get behind schedule, we can add more programmers and catch up. 
(D) If an organization does not understand how to control software projects internally, it will invariably struggle when it outsources software projects

Answer: D

Explanation: 

The software myth is all people who come in contact with software may suffer from various myths associated with developing and using the software. Management myths, customer myths, and programmer myths are the few common myths.

Here in question (a), (b), (c) are myths (programmer & managements myths). So the correct answer is (d)
 

10. Match the following with respect to the relationship between objects and classes:

List 1 List 2
a. State diagram i. Useful for both abstract modelling and for designing actual programs
b. Object diagram ii. Describes object classes
c. Class diagram iii. Useful for documenting test cases
d. Instance diagram iv. Describing the behaviour of a single class of objects.

Codes:

      a b c d

(A) iv i ii iii

(B) ii iii iv i

(C) iii iv ii i

(D) ii iv i iii

Answer: A

Explanation: 

state diagram is a sort of diagram used to illustrate the behavior of systems in computer science and related subjects. 

A graph of instances, containing objects and data values, constitutes an object diagram. A static object diagram is a type of class diagram that depicts a snapshot of the detailed state of a system at a specific point in time. 

The class diagram is the foundation of object-oriented modeling. It is used for both general conceptual modeling of the application's structure and detailed modeling, which involves turning the models into computer code. 

Class diagrams can also be used to model data. 

An instance diagram depicts the current state of one or more objects.

 

11. Match the following style rules for reusability:

List – I List – II 
a. Keep methods coherent i. Write a method to get the last element of a list
b. Keep methods small ii. Maintain parallel structure when possible
c. Keep methods consistent iii. Breaking a method into smaller parts
d. Provide uniform coverage iv. Performs a single function or a group of closely related functions.

Codes:

     a b c d

(A) iv iii ii i

(B) ii i iv iii

(C) iii iv ii i

(D) ii iii iv i 

Answer: A

Explanation: 

(a) Keep methods coherent to perform a single function or a group of closely related functions, so it satisfies (4)

(b) Keep method small is breaking a method into smaller parts, so it satisfies (3)

(c) Keep methods consistent to maintain parallel structure when possible. So it satisfies (2)

(d) Provide uniform coverage to write a method to get the last element of a list, so it satisfies (1)
 

12. Which is the protocol for performing RPCs between applications in a language and system-independent way? 

(A) HyperText Transmission Protocol (HTTP) 

(B) Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) 

(C) Simple Object Access Protocol (SOAP) 

(D) Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP)

Answer: C

Explanation: 

SOAP (Simple Object Access Protocol), which is based on Extensible Markup Language (XML), facilitates communication between the application and operating systems.

It is a messaging protocol that allows programs that run on disparate operating systems (such as Windows and Linux) to communicate using Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP) and its Extensible Markup Language (XML).
 

13. The document that is used by XSLT to indicate how to transform the elements of the XML document to another format is 

(A) HTML page 

(B) DOC type procedure 

(C) Style sheet 

(D) Stored procedure

Answer: C

Explanation: 

Under XSLT, A XLST stylesheet is used to describe transformation rules in XML format. This is read by an application called an "XSLT Processor", transforming a designated XML document. The transformation results are output in XML, HTML, or text format.
 

14. Which of the following concepts means adding new concepts to a program as it runs? (A) Data hiding 
(B) Dynamic loading
(C) Dynamic typing 
(D) Dynamic binding

Answer: B

Explanation: 

In OOPs, Dynamic Binding refers to linking a procedure call to the code that will be executed only at run time. The code associated with the procedure is not known until the program is executed, which is also known as late binding.

Dynamic loading is a mechanism by which a computer program can, at run time, load a library into memory, retrieve the addresses of functions and variables contained in the library, execute those functions or access those variables, and unload the library from memory. Unlike static linking and load time linking, this mechanism allows a computer program to startup in the absence of these libraries, discover available libraries, and potentially gain additional functionality.

 

15. Which of the following correctly describes the overloading of functions? 
(A) Virtual polymorphism 
(B) Transient polymorphism 
(C) Ad-hoc polymorphism 
(D) Pseudo polymorphism

Answer: C

Explanation: 

In a programming language, ad hoc polymorphism is a kind of polymorphism in which functions can be applied to arguments of different types because a polymorphic function can denote the number of distinct & potentially heterogeneous implementation object-Oriented depending on the type of arguments (s) to which it is applied.

 

16. Match the following with respect to programming languages:

List – I List – II 
a. Structured Language i. JAVA
b. Non-structured Language ii. BASIC 
c. Object Oriented Programming Language iii.  PASCAL 
d. Interpreted Programming Language iv.  FORTRAN

Codes:

     a b c d

(A) iii iv i ii

(B) iv iii ii i

(C) ii iv i iii

(D) ii iii iv i 

Answer: A

Explanation: 

PASCAL- is a structured language

FORTRAN - is a non-structured language 
JAVA - is an object-oriented language 
BASIC is interpreted programming language
 

17. The compiler converts all operands up to the type of the largest operand is called 
(A) Type Promotion 
(B) Type Evaluation 
(C) Type Conversion 
(D) Type Declaration

Answer: A

Explanation: 

When constant and variable of different types are mixed in an expression, they are all converted to the same type. The compiler converts all operands up to the type of the largest operand, which is called type promotion

 

18. C++ actually supports the following two complete dynamic systems : 
(A) One is defined by C++ and the other is not defined by C. 
(B) One defined by C and one specific to C++ 
(C) Both are specific to C++ 
(D) Both are improvements of C

Answer: B

Explanation: 

C++ actually supports two complete dynamic allocation system the one defined by C++ and the one specific to C++ The system specific to C contain several improvements over that

 

19. An important advantage of using new and delete operators in C++ is 
(A) Allocation of memory 
(B) Frees the memory previously allocated 
(C) Initialization of memory easily 
(D) Allocation of memory and frees the memory previously allocated.

Answer: D

Explanation: 

C++ supports dynamic allocation and deallocation of objects using the new and delete operators. These operators allocate memory for objects from a pool called the free store. The new operator calls all the special function operators 'new', and the delete operator calls the special function operator! "delete"
 

20. Match the following control strategies of prolog:

List – I List – II 
a. Forward movement i. Variable can be done with a constant, another variable, or a function.
b. Unification   ii. The entire conjunctive goal is executed. 
c. Deep backtracking iii.  The previous sub-goal was to find alternative solutions.
d. Shallow backtracking iv.  Chooses sub goal with possible unifier.

Codes :

      a b c d

(A) iv i ii iii

(B) ii iv i iii

(C) iii i iv ii

(D) ii iii iv i

Answer: A

Explanation:  

Prolog Control Strategy

● Prolog contains three basic control strategies.

− Forward movement

− Matching (Unification)

− Backward movement (Backtracking)

Forward Movement

● Chooses sub goal with possible unifier

Unification

● is a process of matching or finding the most general unifier.

Backtracking

● refers to backtracking in the search process for a solution.

Types of backtracking

● Prolog has two kinds of backtracking.

− Shallow and

− Deep backtracking

● Both backtrackings take place in conjunction with each other.

 

21. Given the following statements: S1: The grammars S → asb | bsa | ss | a and S → asb | bsa | a are not equivalent. S2: The grammars S → ss | sss | asb | bsa | λ and S → ss | asb | bsa | λ are equivalent. Which of the following is true? 

(A) S1 is correct, and S2 is not correct. 

(B) Both S1 and S2 are correct. 

(C) S1 is not correct, and S2 is correct. 

(D) Both S1 and S2 are not correct. 

Answer: A

Explanation: 

S1. Given grammars are:

G1: S->aSb|bSa|SS|a

and      G2: S->aSb|bSa|a

Grammar G1 can generate string w=aa, but

Grammar G2 can not generate this string.

So, G1 and G2 are not equivalent.

S2. Given grammar are

G: S→SS|SSS|aSb|bSa|λ,

And

G: S->SS|aSb|bSa|λ.

Both grammar (i, and Ci, are generating a set of all strings with an equal number of a's and b's
 

22. What are the final values of Q1 and Q0 after 4 clock cycles if the initial values are 00 in the sequential circuit shown below :

(A) 11 
(B) 10

(C) 01 
(D) 00

Answer: D 

Explanation: 

We need to find out Q0Q1 after 4 clock cycles.

Initial: 00 States Q0 and Q1 are zero

Clock 1: 11 State Q0 changed to 1 because input T is 1 and the previous state was 0, and State Q1 changed to 1 because input T is 1 and the previous state was 0.

Clock 2: 01 State Q0 changed to 0 because input T is 1 and the previous state was 1, and State Q1 remains the same because the clk value is 0.

Clock 3: 10 State Q0 changed to 1 because input T was 1 and the previous state was 0, and State Q1 changed to 0 because input T was 1 and the previous state was 1.

Clock 4: 00 State Q0 changed to 0 because input T is 1 and the previous state was 1, and State Q1 remains the same because the clk value is 0.

 

23. High-level knowledge related to the use of sentences in different contexts and how the context affects the meaning of the sentences? 
(A) Morphological 
(B) Syntactic 
(C) Semantic 
(D) Pragmatic

Answer: D

Explanation:  

Pragmatics is the way in which the language's features are used to build effective programs.
 

24. The objective of ________ procedure is to discover at least one ________ that causes two literals to match. 
(A) unification, validation 
(B) unification, substitution 
(C) substitution, unification 
(D) minimax, maximum

Answer: B

Explanation: In Propositional LOGIC unification algo need one or more substitution that causes two literals like P, and ~P to match, so that they cancel out each other hence answer is B

 

25. If h* represents an estimate of the cost of getting from the current node N to the goal node and h represents the actual cost of getting from the current node to the goal node, then the A* algorithm gives an optimal solution if 
(A) h* is equal to h 
(B) h* overestimates h 
(C) h* underestimates h 

(D) None of these

Answer: C

Explanation: 

The rule is A*A*Φ algorithm gives an optimal solution if h* never overestimates h (admissible heuristics, so b is out underestimating h means algorithm is looking for a better solution which may be found if it is there(optimal solution)

Must Recommended, procedure call in compiler design

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Frequently Asked Questions

  1. What is the purpose of the UGC NET Exam?
    UGC NET is an abbreviation for University Grants Commission National Eligibility Test. It is a national-level test used to evaluate eligibility for lectureships and Junior Research Fellowships (JRF) in Indian institutions and colleges.
  2. Can I apply for UGC NET after completing a PG diploma?
    A PGDM is equivalent to a master's degree. So, if you hold a PG Diploma from a recognized university, you are eligible to apply for the exam.
  3. What is the minimum age for applying to the UGC NET Exam?
    According to the UGC NET Eligibility, there is no age limit for assistant professors, but candidates for JRF must be at least 31 years old.
  4. Will distance learning be accepted for the UGC NET?
    Yes, distance education is acceptable for the UGC NET Exam, provided you are enrolled in a UGC accredited university/institute.
  5. What is the UGC NET syllabus?
    The NTA administers the UGC NET Exam in two parts: General Paper-1 (common to all topics) and Paper-2 (subject-specific). The syllabus for each Paper 2 subject varies. You can view the entire UGC NET Syllabus.

Conclusion

In this article, we have extensively discussed some of the previous year's UGC NET questions. For questions 26 to 50, check out  UGC NET DEC 2013 PAPER-III PART-2, and for questions 51-75 check out  UGC NET DEC 2013 PAPER-III PART-3.

We hope that this blog has helped you enhance your knowledge regarding the UGC NET questions and if you would like to learn more, check out our articles on UGC NET ExamNET Application form, PSU Recruitment through GATE, and GATE Books For CSE.

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