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UGC NET June 2015 Paper-II Part-2

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Introduction

UGC NET Exam is a very popular exam in India for people interested in research. Solving Previous Year Questions is an excellent way to learn about the exam pattern and practice for the UGC NET exam. By solving the PYQs, you will get a basic idea about your preparation. In this article, we have given the questions of UGC NET 2015 June Paper-II. We have also explained every problem adequately to help you learn better.

Note: This article contains Q.No. 26 to Q.No. 50 out of the 50 questions asked in NET June 2015 paper II. The solutions to Q.No. 1 to Q.No. 25 can be found in June 2015 Paper-II Part-1 article.

June 2015 Paper-II

  1. Which of the following protocols is an application layer protocol that establishes, manages and terminates multimedia sessions?
    (A) Session Maintenance Protocol
    (B) Real - time Streaming Protocol
    (C) Real - time Transport Control Protocol
    (D) Session Initiation Protocol
    Answer: D
    Session Initiation Protocol is a signaling protocol used for initiating, maintaining, and terminating real-time sessions that include voice, video, and messaging applications.
  2. Match the following port numbers with their uses:
    List – I                                 List – II
    (a) 23                          (i) World wide web
    (b) 25                          (ii) Remote Login
    (c) 80                          (iii) USENET news
    (d) 119                        (iv) E-mail
    (a) (b) (c) (d)
    (A)  (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
    (B)  (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
    (C)  (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
    (D)  (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
    Answer: D
    Port number 23 is used for Remote login and follows TELNET protocol.
    Port number 25 is used for E-mail and follows SMTP protocol.
    Port number 80 is used for World wide web and follows HTTP protocol.
    Port number 119 is used for USENET news and follows USENET protocol.
  3. Which of the following is not associated with the session layer ?
    (A) Dialog control
    (B) Token management
    (C) Semantics of the information transmitted
    (D) Synchronization
    Answer: C
    The responsibilities of the session layer are as given below.
    (a) Session checkpointing and recovery
    (b) Dialog control
    (c) Token management
    (d) Synchronization
  4. What is the size of the 'total length' field in IPv 4 datagram ?
    (A) 4 bits         (B) 8 bits
    (C) 16 bits      (D) 32 bits
    Answer: C
    The total length field in the IPv4 diagram is 16-bits.
  5. Which of the following is/are restriction(s) in classless addressing ?
    (A) The number of addresses needs to be a power of 2.
    (B) The mask needs to be included in the address to define the block.
    (C) The starting address must be divisible by the number of addresses in the block.
    (D) All of the above
    Answer: D
    The rules of classless addressing are given below.
    (a) The number of addresses needs to be a power of 2.
    (b) The mask needs to be included in the address to define the block.
    (c) The starting address must be divisible by the number of addresses in the block.
  6. Match the following:
    List – I                                       List – II
    (a) Forward Reference Table             (i) Assembler directive
    (b) Mnemonic Table                         (ii) Uses array data structure
    (c) Segment Register Table            (iii) Contains machine OP code
    (d) EQU                                              (iv) Uses linked list data structure
    Codes:
    (a) (b) (c) (d)
    (A)  (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
    (B)  (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
    (C)  (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)
    (D)  (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
    Answer: D
    The forward reference table uses the linked list data structure.
    Mnemonic Table contains machine OP code.
    The segment Register table uses the array data structure.
    EQU is an Assembler directive.
  7. The translator which performs macro calls expansion is called :
    (A) Macro processor             (B) Micro pre-processor
    (C) Macro pre-processor      (D) Dynamic linker
    Answer: C
    A macro preprocessor is a C preprocessor that transforms the program before it is compiled. The transformations also include macro expansions. All the preprocessing directives begin with a ‘#” symbol like #define pi 3.14.
  8. If all the production rules have single non - terminal symbol on the left side, the grammar defined is :
    (A) context free grammar                 (B) context sensitive grammar
    (C) unrestricted grammar                (D) phrase grammar
    Answer: A
    If all the production rules have a single non-terminal symbol on the left side, the grammar defined is context-free grammar. It is a certain type of formal grammar. In this, a set of production rules describe all possible strings in a given formal language. Production rules are simple replacements. Like
    A -> α replaces A with α.
    In a context-free grammar, all rules are one-to-one, one-to-many, or one-to-one. If the left side of the production rule is always a non-terminal symbol, it means that the symbol does not appear in the resulting formal language.
  9. Which one from the following is false ?
    (A) LALR parser is Bottom - Up parser
    (B) A parsing algorithm which performs a left to right scanning and a right most deviation is RL (1).
    (C) LR parser is Bottom - Up parser.
    (D) In LL(1), the 1 indicates that there is a one - symbol look - ahead.
    Answer: B
    A parsing algorithm scans right to left and reverses the order. So, statement (b) is false.
  10. Which phase of compiler generates stream of atoms ?
    (A) Syntax analysis  (B) Lexical Analysis
    (C) Code generation   (D) Code optimization
    Answer: A
    In the syntax analyzing phase, tokenizing and parsing occur.
    Tokenizing: creating a stream of atoms
    Parsing: matching the atom stream with the language grammar
    XML output is one way to demonstrate the syntax analyzer works.
  11. A disk drive has 100 cylinders, numbered 0 to 99. Disk requests come to the disk driver for cyclinders 12, 26, 24, 4, 42, 8 and 50 in that order. The driver is currently serving a request at cyclinder 24. A seek takes 6 msec per cyclinder moved. How much seek time is needed for shortest seek time first (SSTF) algorithm?
    (A) 0.984 sec             (B) 0.396 sec
    (C) 0.738 sec             (D) 0.42 sec
    Answer: D

    Total seek time = (2*6) + (14*6) + (4*6) + (4*6) + (38*6) + (8*6) 
    = 420 msec = 0.42 sec
  12. Let Pi and Pj be two processes, R be the set of variables read from memory, and W be the set of variables written to memory. For the concurrent execution of two processes Pi and Pj, which of the following conditions is not true?
    (A) R(Pi)∩W(Pj)=Φ    (B) W(Pi)∩R(Pj)=Φ
    (C) R(Pi)∩R(Pj)=Φ    (D) W(Pi)∩W(Pj)=Φ
    Answer: C
    Option C performs Read and Read. So, it doesn’t violate the concurrent execution of two processes Pi and Pj. All other options perform a write operation which violates the concurrent execution.
  13. A LRU page replacement is used with four page frames and eight pages. How many page faults will occur with the reference string 0172327103 if the four frames are initially empty?
    (A) 6                (B) 7
    (C) 5                (D) 8
    Answer: B

    We can see that the total number of page faults is 7.
  14. What does the following command do?
    grep −vn “abc” x
    (A) It will print all of the lines in the file x that match the search string “abc”
    (B) It will print all of the lines in file x that do not match the search string “abc”
    (C) It will print total number of lines in the file x that match the search string “abc”
    (D) It will print the specific line numbers of the file x in which there is a match for string “abc”
    Answer: B
    The grep filter searches a file for a particular pattern of characters and displays all lines that contain that pattern.
    grep -vn : this prints out all the lines that do not matches the pattern
    grep -vn “abc” : “abc” is the pattern here
    grep -vn “abc” x : ‘x’ is the file name here
  15. The Unix Kernel maintains two key data structures related to processes, the process table and the user structure. Which of following information is not the part of user structure?
    (A) File descriptor table       (B) System call state
    (C) Scheduling parameters   (D) Kernel stack
    Answer: C
    File descriptor table, system call state, and kernel stack are the part of user structure. Scheduling parameters are used to determine which process to run next.
  16. Match the following:
    List – I                                             List – II
    (a) Size-oriented metrics                 (i) uses number of external interfaces as one of the measurement parameter.
    (b) Function-oriented metrics         (ii) originally designed to be applied to business information systems.
    (c) Extended Function Point Metrics (iii) derived by normalizing quality and/or productivity measures by considering the size of the software.
    (d) Function point                             (iv) uses algorithm characteristics as of the measurement parameter.
    Codes
    (a) (b) (c) (d)
    (A)  (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
    (B)  (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
    (C)  (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
    (D)  (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
    Answer: D
    Size-oriented metrics -> derived by normalizing the quality and/or productivity measures by considering the size of the software.
    Function-oriented metrics -> uses the number of external interfaces as one of the measurement parameters.
    External Function Point metrics -> uses algorithm characteristics as one of the measurement parameters.
    Function point -> originally designed to be applied to business information systems.
  17. In which testing strategy requirements established during requirements analysis are validated against developed software?
    (A) Validation testing           (B) Integration testing
    (C) Regression testing        (D) System testing
    Answer: A
    Validation testing ensures that the product meets the client’s needs. In this, the requirements established during requirements analysis are validated against developed software.
  18. Which process model is also called as classic life cycle model?
    (A) Waterfall model              (B) RAD model
    (C) Prototyping model          (D) Incremental model
    Answer: A
    The waterfall model is also called as classic life cycle model. It is intuitively the most common way to develop software. It is intuitively obvious but not practical in the sense that it can not be used in the actual software.
    The waterfall model is given below.
    Requirement analysis -> System design -> Implementation -> Testing -> Deployment -> Maintenance
  19. Cohesion is an extension of:
    (A) Abstraction concept                   (B) Refinement concept
    (C) Information hiding concept      (D) Modularity
    Answer: C
    Cohesion refers to the degree to which the elements inside a module belong together. It is an extension of the Information hiding concept.
  20. Which one from the following is highly associated activity of project planning?
    (A) Keep track of the project progress.
    (B) Compare actual and planned progress and costs
    (C) Identify the activities, milestones and deliverables produced by a project
    (D) Both (B) and ©
    Answer: C
    High priority project planning activity from the given options is to identify the activities, milestones, and deliverables produced by a project
  21. In the case of parallelization, Amdahl's law states that if P is the proportion of a program that can be made parallel and (1-P) is the proportion that cannot be parallelized, then the maximum speed-up that can be achieved by using N processors is:
    (A) 1/((1-P)+N.P)
    (B) 1/((N-1)P+P)
    (C) 1/((1-P)+P/N)
    (D) 1/(P+(1-P)/N)
    Answer: C
    Amdahl’s law can be formulated as
    Slatency(s) = 1/((1-P)+(P/N))
    Where Slatency= theoretical speedup of the execution of the whole task
    s= speeding up of the part of the task that benefits from improved system resources
    P=proportion of execution time that the part benefitting from improved resources originally occupied
    So, the maximum speed-up will be 1/((1-P)+(P/N))
  22. Which of the following statements is incorrect for Parallel Virtual Machine (PVM)?
    (A) The PVM Communication model provides asynchronous blocking send, asynchronous blocking receive and non-blocking receive function.
    (B) Message buffers are allocated dynamically.
    (C) The PVM communication model assumes that any task can send a message to any other PVM task and that there is no limit to the size or number of such messages.
    (D) In PVM Model, the message order is not preserved.
    Answer: D
    PVM (Parallel Virtual Machine) is a software package that permits a heterogeneous collection of Unix and/or Windows computers hooked together by a network to be used as a single large parallel computer. It has become the de-facto standard for distributed computing worldwide. The message order is preserved in the PVM model. So option (d) is incorrect.
  23. Which of the following algorithms sort n integers, having the range 0 to (n2-1), in ascending order in O(n) time ?
    (A) Selection sort      (B) Bubble sort
    (C) Radix sort            (D) Insertion sort
    Answer: C
    Radix sort is a sorting algorithm that works in O(n) time when the given elements are in a specific range.
  24. Which of the following statements is FALSE about weak entity set ?
    (A) Weak entities can be deleted automatically when their strong entity is deleted.
    (B) Weak entity set avoids the data duplication and consequent possible inconsistencies caused by duplicating the key of the strong entity.
    (C) A weak entity set has no primary keys unless attributes of the strong entity set on which it depends are included.
    (D) Tuples in a weak entity set are not partitioned according to their relationship with tuples in a strong entity set.
    Answer: D
    A weak entity has a total participation relationship with strong entity. So, when the strong entity is deleted then the weak entity automatically gets deleted. So, option (a) is correct.
    A weak entity is an entity that does not have any primary key to uniquely identify its every entry and this leads to data duplication and data inconsistency in the weak entity. To avoid this problem, the key of a strong entity is duplicated into the weak entity to uniquely identify each entry of a weak entity. So, option (b) is also correct.
    Until the key attributes of the ‘owner strong entity’ of a weak entity are not included, each entry of the weak entity can’t be uniquely identified. So, option (c) is correct.
    Tuples in a weak entity set are partitioned according to their relationship with tuples in a strong entity set. So, option (d) is incorrect.
  25. Which of the following is not valid with reference to Message Passing Interface (MPI)?
    (A) MPI can run on any hardware platform
    (B) The programming model is a distributed memory model.
    (C) All parallelism is implicit.
    (D) MPI - Comm - Size returns the total number of MPI processes in specified communication.
    Answer: C
    MPI addresses the message-parsing parallel programming model. The data is moved from the address space of one process to that of another process through cooperative operations on each process. The statement “All parallelism is implicit” is not valid with reference to MPI. The interface attempts to be Practical, Portable, Efficient, and Flexible.
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FAQs

What is the UGC NET exam?

UGC NET is a national-level exam organized by UGC to determine the eligibility of the candidates for lectureship and JRF.

What is the exam format for the UGC NET?

The UGC NET exam is conducted entirely online.

Is it possible to take the UGC NET after completing a postgraduate degree?

You are qualified to take the exam if you have finished a PG Diploma from a recognized university.

How can solving PYQs help in my exam preparation?

Solving PYQs will give you a good idea about the exam pattern and help you identify your weak topics to prepare them better for the examination.

How many papers are there in the UGC NET exam?

There are two papers, and the candidates get 3 hours for both papers. There are 150 questions in UGC NET combining both papers.

Conclusion

We have extensively discussed the June 2015 paper-II. We hope that this blog has helped you understand the UGC pattern. You can find the solutions to Q.No. 1 to Q.No. 25 in June 2015 Paper-II Part-1 article.

You can refer to this article for more details on UGC NET 2022. You can refer to other Previous Year papers using the links given below.

Refer to our carefully curated articles and videos and code studio library if you want to learn more. Refer to our guided paths on Coding Ninjas Studio to learn more about DSA, Competitive Programming, JavaScript, System Design, etc. Enrol in our courses and refer to the mock test and problems available. Take a look at the interview experiences and interview bundle for placement preparations.

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Topics covered
1.
Introduction
2.
June 2015 Paper-II
3.
FAQs
3.1.
What is the UGC NET exam?
3.2.
What is the exam format for the UGC NET?
3.3.
Is it possible to take the UGC NET after completing a postgraduate degree?
3.4.
How can solving PYQs help in my exam preparation?
3.5.
How many papers are there in the UGC NET exam?
4.
Conclusion