Introduction
UGC NET or NTA-UGC-NET is the examination for determining the eligibility for the assistant professor and/or Junior Research Fellowship award in Indian universities and colleges. National Testing Agency examines on behalf of the University Grants Commission. In this article, we will cover the first Q26 to Q50 questions. We have covered questions 1 to 25 in UGC NET Dec 2010 PAPER-II Part-1.
Questions
26. Frequency shift keying is used mostly in
(A) Radio transmission
(B) Telegraphy
(C) Telephone
(D) None of the above
Answer: B
Explanation: It is utilized in the voice frequency telegraph system as well as high-frequency wireless telegraphy.
27. The baud rate is
(A) always equal to the bit transfer rate
(B) equal to twice the bandwidth of an ideal channel
(C) not equal to the signaling rate
(D) equal to half of the bandwidth of an ideal channel
Answer: B
Explanation: The baud rate is the rate at which data is conveyed across a communication channel. When describing electronics that employ serial transmission, the term baud rate is frequently used.
28. How much bandwidth is there in 1 micron of the spectrum at a wavelength of 1 micron? (A) 300 MHz
(B) 3 GHz
(C) 300 THz
(D) 30 kHz
Answer: C
Explanation: The formula is Δf=c∗ΔΛ/Λ2;
where ∆f is the bandwidth range;
c is the light speed;
ΔΛ is the wavelength range, and Λ is a specific wavelength.
We want the wavelength to be in meters if the frequency is in hertz and the speed of light is in meters per second.
Because 1 meter equals 1000,000 microns, the formula yields 300 THz.
29. Which of the following file transfer protocols use TCP and establish two virtual circuits between the local and remote server?
(A) FTP
(B) TFTP
(C) TELNET
(D) NFS
Answer: A
Explanation: FTP employs TCP to create two virtual connections: one for data and one for commands.
UDP is used by TFTP (Trivial File Transfer Protocol). As a result, this alternative is ruled out.
User data is sent in-band with control information over a single 8-bit byte-oriented data link in Telnet. As a result, just one virtual connection is required.
NFS is a filesystem that is distributed. It was originally designed to run on top of UDP. However, some implementations support TCP connections. However, regardless of how many NFS filesystems are mounted by the client, an NFS client uses only a single TCP connection to each NFS server by default.
30. The threshold effect in demodulator is
(A) exhibited by all demodulators when the input signal to noise ratio is low.
(B) the rapid fall on output signal to noise ratio when the input signal to noise ratio falls below a particular value.
(C) the property exhibited by all A.M. suppressed coherent carrier demodulator.
(D) the property exhibited by the correlation receiver.
Answer: B
Explanation: When the value of the input signal to noise ratio falls below a certain threshold (called the Threshold value), the receiver detects a quick drop in the output signal to noise ratio. In demodulation, this is referred to as the Threshold effect.
The presence of substantial noise in the modulated signal causes the threshold effect.
31. Object code is the output of ______.
(A) Operating System
(B) Compiler or Assembler
(C) only Assembler
(D) only Compiler
Answer: B
Explanation: A compiler or an assembler generates object code. It is executable code prior to program execution. Intermediate code is JAVA object code that is portable to other computers.
Know the Difference Between Compiler and Assembler here.
32. ‘Macro’ in an assembly level program is _______.
(A) subprogram
(B) a complete program
(C) a hardware portion
(D) relative coding
Answer: A
Explanation: In an assembly level program, a macro is neither a complete program nor a h/w part, and relative coding is accomplished by addressing modes.
33. Grammar of the programming is checked at the ________ phase of the compiler.
(A) semantic analysis
(B) code generation
(C) syntax analysis
(D) code optimization
Answer: C
Explanation: The grammar of the programming is examined at the compiler's Syntax analysis phase.
34. The register or main memory location which contains the effective address of the operand is known as
(A) pointer
(B) special location
(C) indexed register
(D) None of the above
Answer: A
Explanation: The operand's effective address is the contents of a register or main memory location, the address of which appears in the instruction. The name of the register or the memory location specified in the instruction is included in parenthesis to indicate the distinction. A pointer is the register or memory location that contains the operand's address.
35. Macro-processors are ______.
(A) Hardware
(B) Compiler
(C) Registers
(D) None of the above
Answer: B
Explanation: A macro processor is a program that replicates a stream of text from one location to another while performing a systematic set of substitutions. Macro processors are frequently integrated into other programs like assemblers and compilers. They are sometimes standalone programs that can be used to process any type of text.
36. The dynamic allocation of storage areas with VSAM files is accomplished by
(A) Hashing
(B) Control splits
(C) Overflow areas
(D) Relative recoding
Answer: B
Explanation: VSAM is an abbreviation for Virtual Storage Access Method. IBM was the first to use it. It is a way of file management. It can improve access to data in files. Control Splits are used to dynamically allocate storage spaces with VSAM files.
37. Which of the following command the file names in multiple columns?
(A) IS – X
(B) IS
(C) IS – 1
(D) IS – f – X
Answer: B
Explanation: Is with the a-1 option, ls will only display one entry per line. As a result, option C is ruled out. The -X option is used to arrange the list alphabetically by entry extension. The -f option is not used to order the list alphabetically. This option enables the -a option as well. As a result, all files, including those that are hidden, will be displayed. So, what is the alternative for a columnar listing of names? It is, in fact, -C. But the output of ls -C and ls simply match.
38. WINDOWS is a _________ operating.
(A) Real-time
(B) Multi-user
(C) Preemptive
(D) Non-preemptive
Answer: C
Explanation: A multi-user operating system is one that allows several users on various computers or terminals to access a single system with a single operating system. These programs are frequently fairly complex, and they must be able to correctly manage the responsibilities required by the various people connected to them.
39. Page-making process from main memory to disk is called
(A) Interruption
(B) Termination
(C) Swapping
(D) None of the above
Answer: C
Explanation: The operating system employs swapping as one of its memory management mechanisms. Because RAM is limited and has finite incapacity, all processes or programs that must be performed cannot be forced to fit in it. As a result, the disc is regarded as an extension of memory and is referred to as virtual memory. Swapping refers to the process of transferring pages from the main memory to the disc.
40. A Deadlock in an Operating System is
(A) a Desirable process
(B) an Undesirable process
(C) Definite waiting process
(D) All of the above
Answer: C
Explanation: In a deadlock condition, processes are never complete, and system resources are consumed, preventing subsequent activities from commencing.
41. Prototyping is used to
(A) test the software as an end product
(B) expand design details
(C) refine and establish requirements gathering
(D) None of the above
Answer: C
Explanation: One of the SDLC models is prototyping. It begins with gathering requirements and developing a fast prototype, which is an early approximation of a final product. The customer/user then evaluates the prototype, which is subsequently utilized to refine the requirements for the program to be produced.
42. Which one of these is not a software maintenance activity?
(A) Error correction
(B) Adaptation
(C) Implementation of Enhancement
(D) Establishing the scope
Answer: D
Explanation: Changes that result from user requests are referred to as perfective maintenance. In reality, the adaptive and perfective categories might be combined and referred to as improvements.
43. The system specification is the first deliverable in the computer system engineering process which does not include
(A) Functional Description
(B) Cost
(C) Schedule
(D) Technical Analysis
Answer: A
Explanation: The system specification document explains the system and provides a high-level overview of the system's capabilities. The system specification is a handbook that includes specifics on hardware, software, and testing requirements.
44. The COCOMO model was introduced in the book title “Software Engineering Economics” authored by
(A) Abraham Silberschatz
(B) Barry Boehm
(C) C.J. Date
(D) D.E. Knuth
Answer: B
Explanation: The COCOMO model was introduced in a book written by Barry Boehm.
45. The Warnier diagram enables the analyst
(A) to represent information hierarchy in a compact manner
(B) to further identify requirements
(C) to estimate the total cost involved
(D) None of the above
Answer: A
Explanation: The Warnier diagram allows analysts to depict the hierarchy of information in a compact manner. It is also known as the Warnier-Orr diagram. It is a method of graphic charting used in software engineering for system analysis and design.
46. A data mart may contain
(A) summarised data
(B) de-normalized data
(C) aggregate departmental data
(D) All of the above
Answer: D
Explanation: If a department has its own data mart, it can tailor the data as it flows from the data warehouse into the data mart. It has the ability to summarise, sort, choose, and organize its own data.
47. Data mining is
(A) the process of extracting valid, previously unknown, comprehensible, and actionable information from large databases and using it to make crucial business decisions.
(B) a tool that allows end-users direct access and manipulation of data from within the data- the warehousing environment without the intervention of customized programming activity. (C) a tool that helps end-users extract useful business information from a large database.
(D) All of the above
Answer: A
Explanation: definition itself.
48. E-Choupal refers to
(A) calling a meeting of Surpanches electronically.
(B) conducting Panchayat meetings using the latest electronic gadgets.
(C) providing a window of information to villagers and farmers in the NIC network.
(D) None of the above
Answer: C
Explanation: ITC has launched an initiative called E-Choupal. They hope that by launching this project, they will be able to provide farmers with expert expertise. This would boost his global market competitiveness.
49. The basic concepts of ethics in the information society is/are
(A) Responsibility
(B) Accountability
(C) Liability
(D) All of the above
Answer: D
Explanation: Responsibility, Accountability, and Liability are the fundamental elements of ethics in the information age.
50. One of the distinguishing features of super-computer over other categories of computers is
(A) parallel processing
(B) highest accuracy level
(C) more speed
(D) more capacity
Answer: C
Explanation: A supercomputer is a computer that operates at or near the greatest operational rate currently available for computers. Supercomputers have traditionally been used for scientific and engineering applications that need the handling of very big databases or a substantial quantity of processing (or both).
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